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> it's at best a contractual clause binding a particular user. Anyone using that improved model afterward is in the clear.

That's... not really accurate. See the concept of tortious interference with a contract.


Hm, I don't know much about common law, but I don't think this would apply if, say, an ML enthusiast trained a model from LLaMA2 outputs, made it freely available, then someone else commercialised it. The later user never caused the original developer to breach any contract, they simply profited from an existing breach.

That said, doing this inside one company or with subsiduaries probably wouldn't fly.


1. Why wouldn't they be and 2. Does that even matter? If you enter into a contract saying don't do X, and you do X, you're violating the contract.



I assume GP was talking about a scenario in which you had not entered into a contract with Meta. E.g. if I just downloaded the weights from someone else.


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